ACLS Practice Test

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Question 1
In relation to minimizing chest compressions, the ACLS provider should:
A
never delay compressions for more than 5 seconds.
B
never pause more than 30 seconds unless the AED is analyzing the rhythm.
C
never delay compressions for more than 10 seconds.
D
never pause more than 30 seconds even if the AED is analyzing the rhythm.
Question 1 Explanation: 
Interruptions in chest compressions should be kept to a maximum of 10 seconds. An AED will analyze a rhythm rather quickly and should never cause an extended pause in CPR.
Question 2
The first step in the treatment of a patient presenting with asystole is to:
A
gain IV or IO access.
B
begin ventilating the patient.
C
confirm it is asystole.
D
begin chest compressions.
Question 2 Explanation: 
The first step in the treatment of a patient presenting with asystole is to confirm it is asystole.
Question 3
According to AHA guidelines, when ventilating a patient with a BVM what is the approximate tidal volume that should be delivered?
A
1200 mL.
B
1000 mL.
C
600 mL.
D
800 ml.
Question 3 Explanation: 
According to the AHA, the provider should deliver approximately 600 mL of air when ventilating with a BVM.
Question 4
Effective resuscitation requires an integrated response known as:
A
the chain of survival.
B
the BLS survey.
C
the ACLS survey.
D
a system of care.
Question 4 Explanation: 
Effective resuscitation requires an integrated response known as a system of care.
Question 5
You are treating a hypokalemic patient in cardiac arrest.   Which intervention may be helpful?
A
Administration of magnesium sulfate.
B
Hyperventilation.
C
Administration of calcium chloride.
D
Inducing therapeutic hypothermia.
Question 5 Explanation: 
Magnesium can be helpful when treating a hypokalemic patient in cardiac arrest.
Question 6
What is the correct concentration for a maintenance drip of amiodarone?
A
125mg in 500cc.
B
900mg in 500cc.
C
1 mg in 250cc.
D
400mg in 250cc.
Question 6 Explanation: 
The correct concentration for an amiodarone drip is 900mg in 500cc.
Question 7
Hospital staff should aim to begin PCI within how long of arrival to the hospital?
A
2 hours.
B
30 minutes.
C
90 minutes.
D
1 hour.
Question 7 Explanation: 
PCI should be initiated within 90 minutes of arrival to the hospital.
Question 8
The most common cause of an upper airway obstruction in an unconscious patient is:
A
inflammation of the oropharynx.
B
the aspiration of stomach contents.
C
the loss of tone in the throat muscles.
D
the presence of a foreign body or object.
Question 8 Explanation: 
The most common cause of an upper airway obstruction in an unconscious patient is the loss of tone in the throat muscles causing the tongue to cause a blockage.
Question 9
EMS dispatchers who recognize ACS symptoms:
A
should tell the patient to wait outside for the ambulance.
B
should tell the patient to drive themselves to a hospital.
C
should tell the patient to lay down.
D
should instruct the patient to take aspirin.
Question 9 Explanation: 
EMS dispatchers should tell patients to take aspirin if they recognize symptoms of ACS(as long its allowed by local protocol, they have no allergies, and have not experienced a recent GI bleed.
Question 10
You are pacing a patient at an adjusted rate of 75/minute and their hypotension has still not resolved.  You would most likely suspect:
A
there is an underlying cause causing the hypotension.
B
the rate of pacing needs to be turned up.
C
the rate of pacing needs to be turned down.
D
the patient will need about 10 minutes before showing clinical improvement.
Question 10 Explanation: 
Normally, patients symptoms will improve when being paced at a rate of 60-70/minute. If there is no improvement, suspect the hypotension may be caused by an underlying condition.
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